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Criminal Procedure Review Questions 1

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Criminal Procedure Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. In the study of constitutional limitations on police power, which landmark doctrine establishes that any evidence obtained through an illegal search and seizure in violation of constitutional rights is inadmissible in a court of law (popularly known as the "Fruit of the Poisonous Tree" or the Exclusionary Rule)?

A. Miranda v. Arizona

B. Mapp v. Ohio

C. Gideon v. Wainwright

D. Terry v. Ohio


2. During a custodial investigation, a person in custody must be informed of their right to remain silent and their right to have competent and independent counsel, preferably of their own choice. This universally adopted procedural safeguard against self-incrimination originated from which historic case?

A. Gideon v. Wainwright

B. Mapp v. Ohio

C. Miranda v. Arizona

D. Escobedo v. Illinois


3. The fundamental right of an accused to be assisted by counsel during trial, ensuring that even indigent defendants are provided with a court-appointed lawyer at the expense of the state to guarantee a fair trial, is rooted in the principles of which case?

A. Mapp v. Ohio

B. Miranda v. Arizona

C. Gideon v. Wainwright

D. Furman v. Georgia


4. A police officer conducts a raid on a suspect's home without a valid search warrant and discovers incriminating documents. If the suspect's defense lawyer successfully moves to suppress this evidence to prevent the prosecution from using it at trial, the lawyer is primarily relying on the legal precedent set by which case?

A. Mapp v. Ohio

B. Miranda v. Arizona

C. Gideon v. Wainwright

D. Marbury v. Madison


5. A police officer witnesses a man running out of a convenience store holding a knife and a blood-stained bag of money, while the store clerk is screaming for help. The officer immediately chases and arrests the man without a warrant. Under Rule 113, Section 5 of the Revised Rules on Criminal Procedure, what is the specific classification of this warrantless arrest?

A. In flagrante delicto arrest

B. Hot pursuit arrest

C. Arrest of an escaped prisoner

D. John Doe's arrest


6. Under the current 2024 DOJ-NPS Rules on Preliminary Investigations, a formal preliminary investigation is strictly required to be conducted only for criminal offenses carrying what minimum prescribed penalty?

A. At least 4 years, 2 months, 1 day

B. At least 6 years and 1 day  

C. At least 12 years and 1 day

D. For all offenses with jail time


7. As a general rule, all criminal actions must be prosecuted under the direction and control of the public prosecutor. However, in cases of private crimes like seduction, abduction, or acts of lasciviousness, who must exclusively file the complaint to successfully initiate the criminal action?

A. The Chief of Police

B. The offended party or parents

C. Any citizen with knowledge

D. The Barangay Captain


8. The accused was charged with the crime of Murder, which carries the penalty of reclusion perpetua. During the bail hearing, the prosecution successfully demonstrated that the evidence of guilt against the accused is strong. How does the court rule on the bail application?

A. Granted as a matter of right

B. Denied by judicial discretion

C. Granted with double the amount

D. Denied as a matter of right


9. What is the legal consequence if an accused refuses to plead, or makes a conditional plea, during their formal arraignment before the trial court?

A. Arraignment is postponed

B. Automatic conviction judgment

C. A "not guilty" plea is entered

D. Case is dismissed immediately


10. A search warrant was legally issued by a judge on June 1st. The police operatives were heavily occupied with another high-profile case and were only able to execute the raid on June 15th. What is the status of the search warrant used during the June 15th operation?

A. Valid until cancelled by the judge

B. Void after ten days from the date

C. Valid due to a 30-day window

D. Voidable by motion to quash


Criminal Law and Jurisprudence Review Questions 1


Evidence Reviewer 


Answer:

1. B

2. C

3. C

4. A

5. B

6. B

7. B

8. B

9. C

10. B


Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology Review Questions 1

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Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology  Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. A substance yields a deep purple color with the Marquis reagent and a bright blue color with Simon’s reagent. Which substance is most likely present?

A. Heroin

B. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride (Shabu)

C. Cocaine

D. Marijuana


2. A victim's blood and internal organs exhibit a bright, cherry-red discoloration. This is a classic sign of lethal poisoning by which substance?

A. Cyanide

B. Arsenic

C. Carbon Monoxide

D. Mercury


3. Which non-destructive analytical instrument is best suited to determine the chemical composition, organic binders, and pigments of a microscopic paint flake?

A. Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)

B. Fourier Transform Infrared Spectroscopy (FTIR)

C. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)

D. Ultraviolet-Visible (UV-Vis) Spectroscopy


4. Which presumptive color test for blood uses a solution of phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide to produce a deep pink color?

A. Kastle-Meyer Test

B. Takayama Test

C. Teichmann Test

D. Benzidine Test


5. Alcohol is metabolized by the human body at a constant rate that is independent of its concentration in the blood. This metabolic process follows:

A. First-order kinetics

B. Zero-order kinetics

C. Michaelis-Menten clearance

D. Oxidative phosphorylation


6. Which chemical test reacts with the iron in hemoglobin to cause trace, invisible bloodstains to luminesce blue in the dark?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix Test


7. Which test uses rabbit antiserum to produce a visible precipitation line to determine if a blood sample is of human or animal origin?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix Test


8. Which rapid, field-ready presumptive test uses a plastic strip with a reagent pad that turns from yellow to green/blue in the presence of blood?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix Test


9. Which diagnostic screening test involves rubbing a stain with a swab, adding reduced phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide, and watching for an immediate deep pink color?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix test


10. Among the options below, which one is a specific confirmatory or species identification test rather than a presumptive test?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix test


Questioned Documents Examination Reviewer


Answer:

1. B

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. B

6. C

7. A

8. D

9. B

10. A

Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management

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 Republic Act No. 9285, also known as the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Act of 2004, was enacted to actively promote party autonomy, achieve speedy and impartial justice, and declog court dockets in the Philippines. It institutionalizes out-of-court mechanisms for settling disputes.  


1. Core Principles & System Oversight

Promotion of Party Autonomy: The law prioritizes the freedom of conflicting parties to choose how, where, and by whom their disputes will be resolved, rather than relying strictly on standard judicial processes.  


Establishment of the OADR: It created the Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution (OADR) as an attached agency of the Department of Justice (DOJ). The OADR is tasked with promoting, developing, and monitoring ADR practices according to international standards.  


Condition Precedent to Court Filing: In many instances, undergoing ADR processes is deemed a required preliminary step (condition precedent) before a party can formally file a case in court. Failing to attempt ADR when mandated can be a ground for a motion to dismiss.  


2. Strict Confidentiality of Information

Privileged Communication: Any information, statement, or document obtained or generated during mediation or conciliation proceedings is considered strictly privileged and confidential.  


Inadmissibility in Court: This information cannot be used as evidence in any subsequent adversarial judicial or quasi-judicial proceeding.  


Protection for Mediators: Mediators cannot be subpoenaed or forced to testify in court regarding information gathered during the mediation process.  


3. Adoption of International Standards

Adoption of the UNCITRAL Model Law: For international commercial arbitration, RA 9285 formally incorporates the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) Model Law.  


Recognition of Foreign Arbitral Awards: It explicitly outlines the legal framework for Philippine courts to recognize and enforce foreign arbitral awards in accordance with the New York Convention, or via comity and reciprocity if the country of origin is a non-signatory.  


4. Special Forms of Arbitration

Construction Industry Arbitration: The law reinforces the exclusive jurisdiction of the Construction Industry Arbitration Commission (CIAC) over disputes arising from public or private construction contracts in the Philippines. It rules that CIAC arbitral awards do not need Regional Trial Court (RTC) confirmation to be final and executory.  


Domestic Arbitration Framework: For domestic disputes, it supplements and integrates the provisions of the older Republic Act No. 876 (The Arbitration Law). Once a domestic award is officially confirmed by the RTC, it is enforced like a final court judgment.  


5. Procedural Flexibility & Representation

Choice of Venue, Language, and Rules: Parties have the explicit freedom to agree on the place of arbitration (default is Metro Manila if unassigned) and the language to be used (default is English/Filipino).  


Authorized Non-Lawyer Representation: Unlike standard court litigation which strictly requires a licensed attorney, RA 9285 allows parties in ADR proceedings to be represented by non-lawyers or foreign counsel, significantly relaxing strict judicial representation rules.  


6. Express Exclusions from ADR Coverage

The law identifies specific types of disputes that cannot be settled through ADR due to public policy, state interest, or criminal nature. These include:

- Labor disputes (which remain covered by the Labor Code)  

- The civil status of persons  

- The validity of a marriage or any ground for legal separation  

- The jurisdiction of courts

- Future legitime (inheritance rights)  

- Criminal liability

- Disputes which by law cannot be compromised


Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management Review Questions 1

Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management Review Questions 1

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Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


 1. Under Republic Act No. 9285, what core legal principle gives conflicting parties the freedom to choose their own facilitators, select the venue, and make their own arrangements to resolve a dispute out of court?

A. Judicial Discretion

B. Party Autonomy

C. Legal Reciprocity

D. Sovereign Immunity


2. Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanisms under RA 9285 are highly encouraged to resolve conflicts. However, which of the following subject matters is strictly EXCLUDED from the scope of RA 9285 and cannot be legally compromised?  

A. Disputes arising from a private construction contract

B. Commercial disagreements between two corporate entities

C. Criminal liability for a public offense

D. Boundary disputes between neighbors


3. During a formal mediation proceeding under RA 9285, the respondent makes an oral admission regarding a financial discrepancy. If the mediation fails and a full trial begins, can the prosecutor introduce that admission as evidence?

A. Yes, because admissions against interest are always admissible.

B. Yes, provided the mediator submits a signed affidavit certifying the statement.

C. No, because all information and statements generated in ADR are strictly privileged and confidential.

D. No, unless the judge explicitly orders the mediator to testify under pain of contempt.


4. Which specific government agency was created by RA 9285 as an attached bureau of the Department of Justice (DOJ) tasked with promoting and monitoring ADR practices in the Philippines?

A. National Labor Relations Commission (NLRC)

B. Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution (OADR)

C. Construction Industry Arbitration Commission (CIAC)

D. Philippine Mediation Center (PMC)


Criminological Research Review Questions 1


Answer:

1. B

2. C

3. C

4. B



Forensic Ballistics Review Questions 1

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 1. In forensic ballistics, what is the term for the raised area between the grooves inside a firearm's barrel?

A. Caliber

B. Land

C. Rifling

D. Smoothbore


2. Which term refers to the internal diameter of a firearm's barrel, typically measured between opposing lands, or the diameter of the ammunition designed for it?

A. Caliber

B. Land

C. Rifling

D. Smoothbore


3. During a forensic investigation, a ballistics expert examines a fired bullet and notices distinct impressions left by the raised ridges inside the gun barrel. What are these specific raised helical structures called?

A. Caliber

B. Land

C. Rifling

D. Smoothbore


4. What is the name for the overall system of spiral grooves and ridges machined into the interior of a firearm barrel to impart a stabilizing spin on a bullet?

A. Caliber

B. Land

C. Rifling

D. Smoothbore


5. Which type of firearm design features a completely flat, ungrooved interior barrel surface that does not impart a spin on the projectile?

A. Caliber

B. Land

C. Rifling

D. Smoothbore


6. During a forensic examination of a fired cartridge case recovered from a crime scene, the ballistician observes a distinct toolmark on the rim or the groove of the casing. This mark is left when the mechanical claw of the firearm pulls the spent shell out of the breech chamber after firing. Which of the following marks is being described?

A. Firing Pin Mark

B. Extractor Mark

C. Ejector Mark

D. Shearing Mark


7. A suspect weapon is test-fired in a laboratory. Upon examining the base of the fired cartridge case, the examiner notes a deep indentation directly in the center of the primer cup, caused by the strike that ignited the priming mixture. What type of mark is this?

A. Firing Pin Mark

B. Extractor Mark

C. Ejector Mark

D. Shearing Mark


8. In a homicide investigation, a spent cartridge case is found with a clear, localized scuff mark on the rear face of the head, typically located opposite the extractor mark. This mark is created when the cartridge is pushed forward and flipped out of the firearm's ejection port by a protruding metal component. This is known as a/an:

A. Firing Pin Mark

B. Extractor Mark

C. Ejector Mark

D. Shearing Mark


9. While examining a cartridge case fired from a semi-automatic pistol, a forensic ballistics expert notices a shaved or striated mark on the primer. This happens when the firing pin protrudes from the breech face as the barrel drops down during the unlocking cycle, causing the metal to scrape. This specialized toolmark is called a:

A. Firing Pin Mark

B. Extractor Mark

C. Ejector Mark

D. Shearing Mark


10. Which of the following marks on a cartridge case is primarily produced by the rearward motion of the casing pushing against the ejector block or pin, effectively forcing the empty shell to spin out of the gun?

A. Firing Pin Mark

B. Extractor Mark

C. Ejector Mark

D. Shearing Mark


Police Photography Reviewer


Forensic Chemistry  and Toxicology Reviewer


Answer:

1. B

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. D

6. B

7. A

8. C

9. D

10. C


Theories of Crime Causation Review Questions 1

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 Theories of Crime Causation

(Answers are provided below)


1. A resident in an informal settlement in Manila notices that because people are constantly moving in and out, the community lacks the 'collective efficacy' needed to stop local teenagers from engaging in vandalism. Which theory best explains this situation?

A. Control theory

B. Strain theory

C. Rational choice theory

D. Social disorganization theory


2. A person decides to engage in 'akyat-bahay' (burglary) because they believe the chances of being caught are low and the potential profit from stolen gadgets is high. This 'weighing' of consequences aligns with which theory?

A. Rational choice theory

B. Social disorganization theory

C. Control theory

D. Strain theory


3. An individual in a poverty-stricken area wants to provide a comfortable life for their family but lacks the education or job opportunities to do so legally. Consequently, they turn to selling illegal drugs. This represents which theory?

A. Rational choice theory

B. Strain theory

C. Social disorganization theory

D. Control theory


4. According to Travis Hirschi, most people do not commit crimes because they have strong 'attachments' to parents and 'commitment' to their future careers. Which theory is this?

A. Strain theory

B. Social disorganization theory

C. Rational choice theory

D. Control theory


5. Which theory would suggest that increasing police visibility and improving street lighting in a dark alley will deter a snatcher because it increases the risk of being caught?

A. Rational choice theory

B. Control theory

C. Strain theory

D. Social disorganization theory


6. The 'Concentric Zone Model' by Shaw and McKay identifies 'Zone II' (the Zone in Transition) as having the highest crime rates regardless of which ethnic group lives there. This finding supports which theory?

A. Rational choice theory

B. Control theory

C. Social disorganization theory

D. Strain theory


7. A government employee refuses to take a bribe because they strongly believe in the integrity of the law and do not want to jeopardize their 20 years of service toward a pension. This is an application of:

A. Control theory

B. Social disorganization theory

C. Rational choice theory

D. Strain theory


8. A student who feels they can never pass their board exams through hard study chooses to cheat because society only cares about the 'passing' result, not the process. Robert Merton would classify this under:

A. Rational choice theory

B. Control theory

C. Strain theory

D. Social disorganization theory


9. Which theory emphasizes that the certainty of being caught is more effective at preventing crime than the severity of the final punishment?

A. Control theory

B. Rational choice theory

C. Strain theory

D. Social disorganization theory


10. In a neighborhood where neighbors do not know each other and do not care if children skip school or loiter, crime begins to flourish because there is no 'informal social control.' This is the core of:

A. Social disorganization theory

B. Control theory

C. Rational choice theory

D. Strain theory


Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management Review Questions 1


Human Behavior and Victimology


Answer:

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. D

5. A

6. C

7. A

8. C

9. B

10. A


CFLM 2 Review Questions 1

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CFLM 2 Character Formation, Nationalism and Patriotism Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below.)


1.  When a police officer or a public servant has a tendency to delay doing an assigned task or investigation, reserving the work until tomorrow or a later date, they are exhibiting what negative Filipino trait?

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


2. An investigator puts off compiling a case folder because they aren't "in the mood" or feel they have plenty of time, delaying justice. This exemplifies what negative trait? 

A. Fatalism

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


3. The police station launches a massive, aggressive clean-up campaign against illegal street vendors on day one, but completely abandons the initiative by week three. This reflects which trait? 

A. Fatalism

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


4. The police station launches a massive, aggressive clean-up campaign against illegal street vendors on day one, but completely abandons the initiative by week three. This reflects which trait? 

A. Fatalism

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


5. A newly appointed Chief of Police launches a highly publicized, aggressive campaign against illegal gambling in the municipality. During the first week, arrests are made daily; however, after a month, the operations completely cease despite the continued existence of the illegal activity. This behavioral pattern of a fading initial enthusiasm is known as:

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


6. An investigator is assigned a complex homicide case. Instead of immediately processing the crime scene evidence and securing witness statements, the investigator decides to leave the paperwork on their desk, muttering to a colleague, "I will just start working on this tomorrow morning." This habitual delaying of official duties is a manifestation of:

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


7. Police Officer Aquino consistently tops his unit's performance evaluations due to his high arrest rate and discipline. Out of jealousy, several envious colleagues begin spreading false rumors about him and deliberately withholding critical intelligence to sabotage his upcoming promotion. This toxic behavior represents:

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


8. Before conducting a high-risk raid on a known drug den, a team leader fails to conduct a proper tactical briefing or check the team's protective equipment. When asked about the lack of preparation, the leader simply replies, "God will take care of us, let's just see what happens." This dangerous reliance on luck or destiny over professional planning is called:

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


9. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP) introduces a strict new security protocol for mandatory cell inspections. The jail guards execute the inspections thoroughly for the first three days, but eventually grow bored with the routine and completely stop doing them by the end of the week. This short-lived effort is an example of:

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


10. A police station clerk is tasked with encoding mandatory monthly crime statistics due in two weeks. The clerk ignores the task until the very last night before the deadline, resulting in a rushed, error-filled report that compromises the station's performance rating. This specific act of procrastination is best defined as:

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


11. In a municipal police station, a junior officer proposes an innovative digital system to streamline file management. Instead of supporting the initiative, the senior non-commissioned officers mock the idea and actively discourage the chief from approving it, ensuring the junior officer does not look better than the rest of the staff. This negative cultural trait is called:

A. Fatalism (Bahala Na)

B. Ningas Cogon

C. Mañana Habit

D. Crab Mentality


12. Pursuant to the Flag and Heraldic Code of the Philippines (R.A. 8491), what is the correct rule when the Philippine national flag is displayed simultaneously with a foreign national flag?

A. The Philippine flag is smaller

B. The Philippine flag is lower

C. Same size and height

D. Foreign flag raised first


13. Under RA 8491, what size rule applies when a foreign flag is displayed with the Philippine flag?

A. The Philippine flag is smaller

B. The Philippine flag is larger

C. Both must be equal size

D. Size is entirely optional


14. When flown with a foreign flag, the Philippine flag must match it in which aspect?

A. Staff height and size

B. Specific fabric type

C. Total length of rope

D. Method of manufacturing


15. Which law regulates the correct protocol for displaying the Philippine flag with foreign flags?

A. Republic Act No. 4316

B. Republic Act No. 8491

C. Republic Act No. 9165

D. Republic Act No. 11131


16. What is the rule regarding the hoisting of the Philippine flag and the foreign national flag?

A. Foreign flag raised first

B. Local flag raised first

C. Raised on alternate days

D. Raised at the same time


Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions 2


Answer:

1. C

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. B

6. C

7. D

8. A

9. B

10. C

11. D

12. C

13. C

14. A

15. B

16. B

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