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Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards Review Questions 1

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 Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong.

A. Discernment

B. Morality

C. Ethics

D. Imbecility


2. Under the Philippine Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act (RA 9344, as amended), a child above 15 but below 18 years of age is exempt from criminal liability unless it is proven that the minor acted with the psychological and mental ability to understand the difference between right and wrong and its consequences. What is this critical mental capacity called?

A. Intent

B. Discernment

C. Motive

D. Morality


3. When a police officer chooses to return a lost wallet containing a large sum of money to its rightful owner simply because he believes in his heart that stealing is inherently evil, his behavior is being guided by his personal principles and internalized beliefs regarding right and wrong conduct. This system of internal values is known as:

A. Ethics

B. Discretion

C. Morality

D. Integrity


4. The PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards serves as a formalized set of rules and behavioral expectations adopted by the organization to govern the official acts and decisions of law enforcement officers. This systematic, socially or professionally enforced standard of conduct is best classified as:

A. Morality

B. Customs

C. Ethics

D. Traditions


5. In classical criminal law and historical medico-legal literature, a person suffering from a profound congenital mental deficiency is considered incapable of understanding the nature and consequences of his acts, rendering him exempt from criminal responsibility due to the complete absence of reason. Such a condition was traditionally referred to as:

A. Imbecility

B. Neurosis

C. Psychopathy

D. Schizophrenia


6. A juvenile suspect is alleged to have committed a criminal offense. During the investigation, authorities must determine whether the minor possessed the mental capacity to understand the wrongfulness of the act and appreciate its consequences at the time it was committed. This capacity is known as:

A. Discretion

B. Discernment

C. Ethics

D. Prudence


Dispute Resolution and Crisis /Incident Management Review Questions 1


Answer:

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. C

5. A

6. B

Non-Institutional Correction Review Questions 1

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Non-Institutional Correction Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. In the context of correctional administration, what is the process of changing the behavior of a criminal through non-punitive means such as counseling and education?

A.Reformation

B.Institutionalization

C.Retribution

D.Restitution


2. What is the primary purpose of Probation as a community-based correction in the Philippines?

A. Incapacitation

B. Isolation

C. Rehabilitation

D. Punishment


3. An application for probation must be filed within what period?

A. Before the trial commences

B. After the offender has served one-third of the sentence

C. Anytime during the service of the sentence

D. Within the period for perfecting an appeal


4. Who is recognized as the 'Father of Philippine Probation' for his efforts in the passage of PD 968 (Amended by RA 10707)?

A. John Augustus

B. Ferdinand Marcos

C. Teódulo Natividad

D. Mathew Davenport Hill


5. What is the legal effect of filing an application for probation on the offender's right to appeal the judgment of conviction?

A. It requires the appeal to be decided first

B. It suspends the right to appeal

C. It shall be deemed a waiver of the right to appeal

D. It has no effect on the right to appeal


6. Which school of criminology strongly advocates for the reformation and treatment of offenders rather than purely punitive measures?

A. Neo-Classical School

B. Classical School

C. Positivist School

D. Chicago School


7. Under the Philippine justice system, which of the following is a 'mandatory' condition of probation?

A. Report to the probation officer at least once a month

B. Refrain from drinking intoxicating beverages

C. Pursue a prescribed course of study or vocational training

D. Undergo medical or psychological treatment


8. How does Parole differ fundamentally from Probation in the Philippine correctional system?

A. Parole is granted by the court, while probation is granted by the President

B. Parole is served inside the prison, while probation is served outside

C. Parole is a post-prison release, while probation is an alternative to prison

D. Parole is for minor offenses, while probation is for heinous crimes


9. Which form of executive clemency entirely wipes away the legal guilt of the offender and restores their civil rights?

A. Conditional Pardon

B. Absolute Pardon

C. Commutation of Sentence

D. Reprieve


10. If a probationer violates the conditions of their probation, what is the legal recourse of the court?

A. The court may revoke the probation and order the offender to serve the original sentence

B. The court will transfer the case to the Board of Pardons and Parole

C. The court must automatically double the original sentence

D. The offender is given a permanent warning and allowed to stay on probation


Therapeutic Modalities Reviewer


Answer:

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. C

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. C

9. B

10. A

Fire Protection and Arson Investigation Review Questions 1

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 Fire Protection and Arson Investigation Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. In a fire scene investigation, what is the term used to describe the thermal decomposition of solid organic materials through heat in the absence of oxygen, which precedes actual combustion?

A. Oxidation

B. Pyrolysis

C. Flashpoint

D. Spontaneous combustion


2. What is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off vapor sufficient to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface of the liquid?

A. Flash Point

B. Fire Point

C. Ignition Temperature

D. Boiling Point


3. An arson investigator locates a distinct V-pattern on a wall near the floor. What does the bottom apex of this V-pattern typically signify to the investigator?

A. The exact location where an accelerant was stored

B. The point of origin of the fire

C. The area where the fire was extinguished

D. The presence of a mechanical trailer


4. Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment, where the electrical non-conductivity of the extinguishing media is of utmost importance?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D


5. What is the malicious use of a secondary fire, a delayed timing device, or multiple independent points of origin called when used by an arsonist to ensure the total destruction of a property?

A. Plant

B. Trailer

C. Accelerant

D. Incendiary device


6. During which stage of a fire is the oxygen content in the room still relatively normal (around 21%), the temperature has not yet peaked, and the fire is localized to the initial fuel source?

A. Incipient stage

B. Free burning phase

C. Smoldering phase

D. Flash over


7. In this phase of fire development, convection and radiation cause the temperature in the upper regions of the room to rise rapidly, ambient room temperatures can exceed 700°C, and unburned combustible gases accumulate at the ceiling level. Which phase is this?

A. Incipient stage

B. Free burning phase

C. Smoldering phase

D. Flash over


8. What is the transitional moment in a compartment fire where all the exposed combustible surfaces within the enclosed room simultaneously ignite, shifting the fire from a fuel-controlled state to a ventilation-controlled state?

A. Incipient stage

B. Free burning phase

C. Smoldering phase

D. Flash over


9. If a fire consumes most of the available oxygen in a tightly sealed room, the flames will die down, leaving heavily concentrated, superheated combustible gases and dense smoke. What is this oxygen-depleted stage called?

A. Incipient stage

B. Free burning phase

C. Smoldering phase

D. Flash over


10. An arson investigator enters a burned structure and notices heavy soot deposition on the windows, a tight pulse of smoke pushing out of small cracks, and highly pressurized dark smoke. These are classic indicators that the fire has entered which specific stage?

A. Incipient stage

B. Free burning phase

C. Smoldering phase

D. Flash over


Vice and Drug Education Reviewer


Answer:

1. B

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. A

6. A

7. B

8. D

9. C

10. C


Specialized Crime Investigation with Legal Medicine Review Questions 1

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 Specialized Crime Investigation with Legal Medicine Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. The post-mortem examination of a dead body performed to determine the cause, manner, and mechanism of death, as well as to identify the deceased, is legally termed as what?

A. Autopsy

B. Toxicology

C. Biopsy

D. Exhumation


2. If a medical examiner suspects that a victim died due to a lethal dose of arsenic or cyanide, what specific branch of forensic science must analyze the post-mortem blood, vitreous humor, and liver tissue samples?

A. Forensic Serology

B. Forensic Ballistics

C. Forensic Toxicology

D. Forensic Pathology


3. During the external post-mortem examination of a body found at a crime scene, the investigator notes a distinct reddish-purple discoloration on the dependent portions of the body due to the gravitational pooling of blood. What is this post-mortem condition called?

A. Rigor mortis

B. Livor mortis

C. Algor mortis

D. Putrefaction


4. A responding criminologist finds a cadaver whose muscles have completely stiffened, chemical changes making the joints rigid. What is this post-mortem indicator used to estimate the time of death?

A. Algor mortis

B. Post-mortem lividity

C. Rigor mortis

D. Cadaveric spasm


5. When a body has already been buried, but a supervening court order demands that it be dug up out of the grave for a new post-mortem examination or autopsy to gather hidden evidence, what is this process called?

A. Cremation

B. Interdiction

C. Exhumation

D. Entombment


Traffic Management and Accident Investigation with Driving Reviewer


Answer:

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. C

5. C


Criminal Procedure Review Questions 1

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Criminal Procedure Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. In the study of constitutional limitations on police power, which landmark doctrine establishes that any evidence obtained through an illegal search and seizure in violation of constitutional rights is inadmissible in a court of law (popularly known as the "Fruit of the Poisonous Tree" or the Exclusionary Rule)?

A. Miranda v. Arizona

B. Mapp v. Ohio

C. Gideon v. Wainwright

D. Terry v. Ohio


2. During a custodial investigation, a person in custody must be informed of their right to remain silent and their right to have competent and independent counsel, preferably of their own choice. This universally adopted procedural safeguard against self-incrimination originated from which historic case?

A. Gideon v. Wainwright

B. Mapp v. Ohio

C. Miranda v. Arizona

D. Escobedo v. Illinois


3. The fundamental right of an accused to be assisted by counsel during trial, ensuring that even indigent defendants are provided with a court-appointed lawyer at the expense of the state to guarantee a fair trial, is rooted in the principles of which case?

A. Mapp v. Ohio

B. Miranda v. Arizona

C. Gideon v. Wainwright

D. Furman v. Georgia


4. A police officer conducts a raid on a suspect's home without a valid search warrant and discovers incriminating documents. If the suspect's defense lawyer successfully moves to suppress this evidence to prevent the prosecution from using it at trial, the lawyer is primarily relying on the legal precedent set by which case?

A. Mapp v. Ohio

B. Miranda v. Arizona

C. Gideon v. Wainwright

D. Marbury v. Madison


5. A police officer witnesses a man running out of a convenience store holding a knife and a blood-stained bag of money, while the store clerk is screaming for help. The officer immediately chases and arrests the man without a warrant. Under Rule 113, Section 5 of the Revised Rules on Criminal Procedure, what is the specific classification of this warrantless arrest?

A. In flagrante delicto arrest

B. Hot pursuit arrest

C. Arrest of an escaped prisoner

D. John Doe's arrest


6. Under the current 2024 DOJ-NPS Rules on Preliminary Investigations, a formal preliminary investigation is strictly required to be conducted only for criminal offenses carrying what minimum prescribed penalty?

A. At least 4 years, 2 months, 1 day

B. At least 6 years and 1 day  

C. At least 12 years and 1 day

D. For all offenses with jail time


7. As a general rule, all criminal actions must be prosecuted under the direction and control of the public prosecutor. However, in cases of private crimes like seduction, abduction, or acts of lasciviousness, who must exclusively file the complaint to successfully initiate the criminal action?

A. The Chief of Police

B. The offended party or parents

C. Any citizen with knowledge

D. The Barangay Captain


8. The accused was charged with the crime of Murder, which carries the penalty of reclusion perpetua. During the bail hearing, the prosecution successfully demonstrated that the evidence of guilt against the accused is strong. How does the court rule on the bail application?

A. Granted as a matter of right

B. Denied by judicial discretion

C. Granted with double the amount

D. Denied as a matter of right


9. What is the legal consequence if an accused refuses to plead, or makes a conditional plea, during their formal arraignment before the trial court?

A. Arraignment is postponed

B. Automatic conviction judgment

C. A "not guilty" plea is entered

D. Case is dismissed immediately


10. A search warrant was legally issued by a judge on June 1st. The police operatives were heavily occupied with another high-profile case and were only able to execute the raid on June 15th. What is the status of the search warrant used during the June 15th operation?

A. Valid until cancelled by the judge

B. Void after ten days from the date

C. Valid due to a 30-day window

D. Voidable by motion to quash


Criminal Law and Jurisprudence Review Questions 1


Evidence Reviewer 


Answer:

1. B

2. C

3. C

4. A

5. B

6. B

7. B

8. B

9. C

10. B


Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology Review Questions 1

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Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology  Review Questions 1

(Answers are provided below)


1. A substance yields a deep purple color with the Marquis reagent and a bright blue color with Simon’s reagent. Which substance is most likely present?

A. Heroin

B. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride (Shabu)

C. Cocaine

D. Marijuana


2. A victim's blood and internal organs exhibit a bright, cherry-red discoloration. This is a classic sign of lethal poisoning by which substance?

A. Cyanide

B. Arsenic

C. Carbon Monoxide

D. Mercury


3. Which non-destructive analytical instrument is best suited to determine the chemical composition, organic binders, and pigments of a microscopic paint flake?

A. Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)

B. Fourier Transform Infrared Spectroscopy (FTIR)

C. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)

D. Ultraviolet-Visible (UV-Vis) Spectroscopy


4. Which presumptive color test for blood uses a solution of phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide to produce a deep pink color?

A. Kastle-Meyer Test

B. Takayama Test

C. Teichmann Test

D. Benzidine Test


5. Alcohol is metabolized by the human body at a constant rate that is independent of its concentration in the blood. This metabolic process follows:

A. First-order kinetics

B. Zero-order kinetics

C. Michaelis-Menten clearance

D. Oxidative phosphorylation


6. Which chemical test reacts with the iron in hemoglobin to cause trace, invisible bloodstains to luminesce blue in the dark?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix Test


7. Which test uses rabbit antiserum to produce a visible precipitation line to determine if a blood sample is of human or animal origin?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix Test


8. Which rapid, field-ready presumptive test uses a plastic strip with a reagent pad that turns from yellow to green/blue in the presence of blood?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix Test


9. Which diagnostic screening test involves rubbing a stain with a swab, adding reduced phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide, and watching for an immediate deep pink color?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix test


10. Among the options below, which one is a specific confirmatory or species identification test rather than a presumptive test?

A. Precipitin test

B. Kastle-Meyer Test

C. Luminol Test

D. Hemastix test


Questioned Documents Examination Reviewer


Answer:

1. B

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. B

6. C

7. A

8. D

9. B

10. A

Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management

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 Republic Act No. 9285, also known as the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Act of 2004, was enacted to actively promote party autonomy, achieve speedy and impartial justice, and declog court dockets in the Philippines. It institutionalizes out-of-court mechanisms for settling disputes.  


1. Core Principles & System Oversight

Promotion of Party Autonomy: The law prioritizes the freedom of conflicting parties to choose how, where, and by whom their disputes will be resolved, rather than relying strictly on standard judicial processes.  


Establishment of the OADR: It created the Office for Alternative Dispute Resolution (OADR) as an attached agency of the Department of Justice (DOJ). The OADR is tasked with promoting, developing, and monitoring ADR practices according to international standards.  


Condition Precedent to Court Filing: In many instances, undergoing ADR processes is deemed a required preliminary step (condition precedent) before a party can formally file a case in court. Failing to attempt ADR when mandated can be a ground for a motion to dismiss.  


2. Strict Confidentiality of Information

Privileged Communication: Any information, statement, or document obtained or generated during mediation or conciliation proceedings is considered strictly privileged and confidential.  


Inadmissibility in Court: This information cannot be used as evidence in any subsequent adversarial judicial or quasi-judicial proceeding.  


Protection for Mediators: Mediators cannot be subpoenaed or forced to testify in court regarding information gathered during the mediation process.  


3. Adoption of International Standards

Adoption of the UNCITRAL Model Law: For international commercial arbitration, RA 9285 formally incorporates the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) Model Law.  


Recognition of Foreign Arbitral Awards: It explicitly outlines the legal framework for Philippine courts to recognize and enforce foreign arbitral awards in accordance with the New York Convention, or via comity and reciprocity if the country of origin is a non-signatory.  


4. Special Forms of Arbitration

Construction Industry Arbitration: The law reinforces the exclusive jurisdiction of the Construction Industry Arbitration Commission (CIAC) over disputes arising from public or private construction contracts in the Philippines. It rules that CIAC arbitral awards do not need Regional Trial Court (RTC) confirmation to be final and executory.  


Domestic Arbitration Framework: For domestic disputes, it supplements and integrates the provisions of the older Republic Act No. 876 (The Arbitration Law). Once a domestic award is officially confirmed by the RTC, it is enforced like a final court judgment.  


5. Procedural Flexibility & Representation

Choice of Venue, Language, and Rules: Parties have the explicit freedom to agree on the place of arbitration (default is Metro Manila if unassigned) and the language to be used (default is English/Filipino).  


Authorized Non-Lawyer Representation: Unlike standard court litigation which strictly requires a licensed attorney, RA 9285 allows parties in ADR proceedings to be represented by non-lawyers or foreign counsel, significantly relaxing strict judicial representation rules.  


6. Express Exclusions from ADR Coverage

The law identifies specific types of disputes that cannot be settled through ADR due to public policy, state interest, or criminal nature. These include:

- Labor disputes (which remain covered by the Labor Code)  

- The civil status of persons  

- The validity of a marriage or any ground for legal separation  

- The jurisdiction of courts

- Future legitime (inheritance rights)  

- Criminal liability

- Disputes which by law cannot be compromised


Dispute Resolution and Crisis/Incident Management Review Questions 1

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