Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions
Law Enforcement Administration Review Questions
Syllabi/Table of Specification
The registered criminologist can perform the following professional practice outcomes for his/her initial entry into the practice of the profession:
- Demonstrate competence and a broad understanding of law enforcement administration, public safety, and criminal justice.
- Internalize the concepts of human rights and victim welfare.
- Effectively communicate orally and in writing using both English and Filipino.
- Act in recognition of professional, social, and ethical responsibility.
1. It depicts the unbroken flow of command from the top to the bottom of the organizational hierarchy.
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of control
C. Unity of command
D. Hierarchy of authority
Answer: Chain of Command
2. A PNP personnel with the rank of Police Lieutenant Colonel is subject to the appointing power of the ______ to the next higher rank.
A. President
B. DILG Secretary
C. President subject to the confirmation of the Commission on Appointments
D. Chief PNP
Answer: President
3. Organization may be defined as arranging personnel and functions in a systematic manner designed to accommodate stated goals and objectives in the best manner possible
A. effective
B. excellent
C. efficient
D. economical
Answer: Efficient
4. The hierarchy of authority which is the order of ranks from the highest to the lowest levels of the organization is called
A. scalar Chain
B. unity of command
C. line of authority
D. chain of command
Answer: Scalar Chain
5. It postulates that the commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duty
A. Command responsibility
B. Unity of Command
C. Delegation of Authority
D. Span of Control
Answer: Command Responsibility
6. The following were authorized to conduct summary dismissal over administrative cases against uniformed PNP personnel, except.
A. IAS
B. Chief PNP
C. PNP Regional Directors
D. None of these
Answer: IAS
7. The power to revoke the licenses issued to security guards is vested to
A. Chief PNP
B. Secretary, DILG
C. PNP Regional Director
D. Chairman, Napolcom
Answer: Chief PNP
8. What operational support units of the PNP conduct the identification and evaluation of physical evidence related to crimes?
A. Health service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. SOCO
D. CIDG
Answer: Crime Laboratory
9. This early English Police System adopted the so-called "tithings".
A. Frankpledge system
B. Metropolitan Constabulary of London
C. Parish constable system
D. Bow Street runners
Answer: Frankpledge system
10. In criminal investigation before taking the sworn statement of a suspect, the investigator should inform the former of?
A. The name of the complainant and witnesses
B. His constitutional rights
C. The evidence collected against him
D. His identity as an officer in a case
Answer: B
11. What is 'Tailgating in the context of security management?
a. Using fake identification cards
b. Unauthorized individuals following authorized personnel to gain entry
c. Smuggling goods out of the premises
d. Illegally copying access keys
Answer: B
12. What is the purpose of conducting a security audit?
a. To identify potential business opportunities
b. To assess employee job performance
c. To evaluate the effectiveness of security measures
d. To conduct a financial analysis
Answer: C
13. What does the acronym "HSE" stand for in the context of industrial security?
a. High-Security Establishment
b. Hazardous Safety Environment
c. Health, Safety, and Environment
d. Hostile Security Enforcement
Answer: C
14. What does "SWOT" stand for in the context of security risk assessment?
a. Security Watch and Operational Training
b. Safety Workflow and Occupational Tracking
c. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
d. Security Workforce Optimization Tactics
Answer: C
15. Which of the following is NOT a physical security measure?
a. Security cameras
b. Access control systems
c. Employee training
d. Perimeter fencing
Answer: C
16. This Decree is known as the "Philippine Extradition Law".
a. PD 1069
b. RA 1069
c. PD 6910
d. RA 6910
Answer: A
17. The removal of an accused from the Philippines with the object of placing him at the disposal of foreign authorities.
a. Banishment
b. Destierro
c. Extradition
d. Exile
Answer: C
18. A request for extradition made by a foreign state shall be addressed to the
a. Secretary of Justice
b. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
c. Office of the President
d. Senate President
Answer: B
19. It is the duty of the Secretary of Foreign Affairs to forward the referral of request for extradition to the
a. Secretary of Justice
b. PNP
c. NBI
d. BI
Answer: A
20. In extradition, the DOJ Secretary will designate an attorney to take charge of the case who in turn will file the case at the...
a. Supreme Court
b. Court of Appeals
c. Regional Trial Court
d. Municipal Trial Court
Answer: C
21. In the hearing for extradition, what rules apply?
a. Rules of Court
b. Rules on summary procedure
c. Rules on special proceedings
d. None of these
Answer: A
22. In extradition, in case of urgency, the requesting state may request for provisional arrest of the accused, the request shall be sent to the
a. Director of NBI
b. Chief PNP
c. DOJ Secretary
d. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
23. The Philippines has an extradition law since...
a. 1972
b. 1977
c. 1986
d. 1992
Answer: B
24. The Philippines may only grant extradition under a treaty or convention. One of the following does not have an extradition treaty with the Philippines.
a. Australia
b. Canada
c. USA
d. Germany
Answer: D
25. How many countries have an extradition treaty with the Philippines?
a. 14
b. 24
c. 34
d. 44
Answer: A
26. In a simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance what is to be done and how it is to be accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for action.
A. Operations
B. management
C. planning
D. administration
Answer: C
27. In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional Director is ;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 9 years
Answer: B
28. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 8 years
Answer: A
29. The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police examinations is;
A. RA 2260
B. RA 6040
C. RA 4864
D. RA 6141
Answer: B
30. The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising from the administration of the PNP is referred to as
A. Personnel Administration Service
B. Planning and Research Service
C. Legal Affairs Service
D. People’s Law Enforcement Board
Answer: C
31. The method of separation from the police service after completing the required age for length of service is called
A. Retirement
B. Dismissal
C. Demotion
D. AWOL
Answer: A
32. The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM is
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 9 years
Answer: A
33. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson, Commissioners, and one
A. Ex-officio Chairman
B. Secretary
C. Ex-officio Commissioner
D. Ex- officio Chairperson
Answer: C
34. The agency of the government responsible for the administration of police entrance and promotional examination is the
A. Civil Service Commission
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PNPA
D. CHED
Answer: B
35. Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to the
A. DILG Secretary
B. Internal Affairs Service
C. PLEB
D. Inspector General Napolcom
Answer: D
36. The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in the police exercise of discretion as well as to achieve
A. Reformation and rehabilitation
B. Efficiency and effectiveness
C. Organization and Administration
D. None of the above
Answer: B
37. The ex-officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM is the
A. Chief of the PNP
B. Secretary of DILG
C. Commissioner from the civilian sector
D. None of the above
Answer: B
38. The four regular and full-time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM shall be appointed by the President for a term of
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 9 years
Answer: C
39. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM which shall conduct a management audit, and prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be approved by
A. DILG Secretary
B. Congress
C. C/PNP
D. President
Answer: B
40. The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the community through the protection of persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals, the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and performing necessary services and inspections is
A. Traffic Division
B. Theft and Robbery Division
C. Patrol Force
D. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
Answer: C
41. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents that involve one or both of the elements namely
A. motor vehicles and traffic way
B. motor vehicle and victim
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit
Answer: A
42. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limit in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
Answer: D
43. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. keep a record of all outstanding license plates in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates.
Answer: D
44. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to
A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes
C. regards any unfavorable factor existing immediately before the accident as a cause
D. look for the “key event” that causes the accident
Answer: D
45. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
A. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
D. a warning rather than a citation will act as a preventive measure for future violation
Answer: A
46. In the examination of the scene of an accident, which of the following evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. vehicle has a brake failure
Answer: C
47. The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service is
A. 15 years
B. 25 years
C. 30 years
D. 20 years
Answer: D
48. The nature of the complaint against any PNP member is called
A. Individual Complaint
B. Public Complaint
C. Citizen’s Complaint
D. Administrative Complain
Answer: C
49. The consequence of an act, that temporarily deprives an officer of the privilege of performing his duty, is referred to as:
A. Dismissal
B. Retirement
C. Resignation
D. Suspension
Answer: D
50. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be processed at what particular government agency.
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC
Answer: D
51. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
Answer: A
52. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
53. Refers to a natural or man-made structure that is capable of delaying illegal access to the facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts
Answer: C
54. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees make them security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
Answer: B
55. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical defense, which refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door, Locks, Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located
Answer: A
56. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object matter to be protected. As criminologists, this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
Answer: C
57. The weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
Answer: D
58. Perimeter barriers, protective lighting, and ______ system are known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
Answer: A
59. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders of a certain area, this is known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower
Answer: C
60. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
Answer: B
61. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of electronic hardware, human n guards, and even animals. In England, an owner protects his compound used and they are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain. This man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck
Answer: C
62. The government agency that issues licenses for private and government security guards is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
Answer: D
63. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel, this particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
Answer: B
64. The first measure was undertaken before a comprehensive security program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security Education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
Answer: C
65. The security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
Answer: B
66. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to the Blue Army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Bodyguards
Answer: D
67. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm or hire contractual agency guards has its individual merits and disadvantages. To determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner
Answer: A
68. As a security officer, you can not prevent nor protect natural hazards like storms, earthquakes, floods, and the like. To reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
Answer: D
69. A practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan
Answer: C
70. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is
A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check the loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks.
Answer: D
71. In an industrial firm, there is a need for document security. As a security officer, you can advise management on this aspect although this is only partially your assigned work. Document security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handlers
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
Answer: A
72. As a security chief of an industrial firm, inventory shows that pilferage is rampant in the warehouses. What will be your choice of action
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage-prone areas to catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking of the existence of vehicles in the compound/complex
Answer: B
73. There are many types of electronic and electric protective devices available for security buildings, storehouses, and compounds. One of the ff: is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular electronic/electrical protective devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards
Answer: C
74. The management of keys used in plant office or business organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
Answer: C
75. It is defined as a system of barriers placed between the matters protected and the potential intruder
A. Computer security
B. Personnel security
C. Document security
D. Physical security
Answer: D
76. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound
A. Auxiliary system
B. Proprietary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
Answer: C
77. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000 cubic meters of essential items. At least 12 ft. in height with enough ventilation and fireproofing for at least one hour.
A. Protective cabinet
B. File room
C. Vault
D. Safe
Answer: B
78. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss, or disruption of operations due to various hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
Answer: C
79. It refers to the importance of the establishment regarding the national economy and security.
A. Risk analysis
B. Relative vulnerability
C. Risk assessment
D. Relative criticality
Answer: D
80. The association of all licensed security agency operators
A. POAPAD
B. PADPAO
C. PODPAO
D. PAOPAD
Answer: B
81. Who among the below can own or operate a security agency?
A. A Filipino citizen
B. Anyone provided he knows the job
C. An alien living in the Philippines
D. All of them
Answer: A
82. A license is issued to operate a security agency or company forces.
A. Business license
B. License to engage in business
C. License to operate
D. All of them
Answer: C
83. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of
A. Private detective
B. Company security
C. Private security forces/agencies
D. All of them
Answer: D
84. Fact-finding proves to determine a plant's adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security with the corresponding recommendation.
A. Security audit
B. Security survey
C. Security inquiry
D. Security operations
Answer: B
85. Barriers include but are not limited to walls, fences, grills, etc.
A. Structural barriers
B. Man-made barriers
C. Physical barriers
D. Natural barriers
Answer: B
86. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of detection.
A. Systematic
B. Outsider
C. Casual
D. Insider
Answer: C
87. A barrier that includes but is not limited to mountains, cliffs, ravines, cliffs, etc.
A. Energy
B. Human
C. Natural
D. Animals
Answer: C
88. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to the company.
A. Duress code
B. Pass system
C. ID
D. Access list
Answer: B
89. In close-in security formations, a one-man security covers
A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
Answer: A
90. A mechanical device supplying water that can be manual or motor-driven.
A. Standpipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump
Answer: A
91. Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the human guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded
Answer: A
92. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to the compound or installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code
Answer: C
93. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by human action, accidental or intentional. It includes sabotage, espionage, pilferage and theft, disloyalty, disaffection, and subversive activities.
A. Electronic hazard
B. natural hazard
C. Artificial hazard
D. Human hazard
Answer: D
94. Example of the Security Communication system.
A. Telephone
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them
Answer: D
95. The revised rules and regulations govern the organization and operation of private detective private security agencies and company security forces throughout the country.
A. Private security law
B. International law
C. Private law
D. Security law
Answer: A
96. A metallic container is used for the safekeeping of documents or small items in an office or installation.
A. Steel cabinet
B. Drawer
C. Basket
D. Safe
Answer: D
97. A heavily constructed fire and burglar-resistant container is usually a part of the building structure used to keep and protect cash, documents, and negotiable instruments.
A. Basket
B. Vault
C. Steel cabinet
D. Concrete coffin
Answer: B
98. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Standpipe
Answer: D
99. Who among the below are exempted from pre-licensing training?
A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above
Answer: D
100. Tenure of security personnel is based on
A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the client
C. Labor-only contract between the agency and the guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code
Answer: B
Before private security agencies render security services to their clients, there must be a contract that must bind them, it is called
A. Contract service
B. Service contract
C. Security contract
D. Security service contract
Answer: D
Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of a security agency.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP, inactive or retirees
B. At least 25 years of age
C. Filipino citizen
D. All of them
Answer: D
A security force maintained and operated by any private company for its own security requirements only.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security unit
Answer: B
A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or secure a residence business establishment or both is
A. Watchman
B. Security guard
C. B only
D. B and A
Answer: D
Include all the security measures designed to prevent unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the government from gaining access to classified matters or to any security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as employees of such individuals.
A. Security personnel
B. Employee security
C. Personnel security
D. Both A and C
Answer: C
It is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, and loyalty of an individual to determine a person's suitability to be given security clearance.
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI
Answer: D
Consists of the investigation of the background of an individual but is limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal life that are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: B
A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person's life is conducted.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: D
Among the following, which is the least expensive and least secure personnel control identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
D. Single pass or badge system
Answer: D
Factors considered in background investigation except:
A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty
Answer: C
Motives that cause people to be disloyal
A. Character
B. Revenge
C. Moral
D. Reputation
Answer: B
Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure
A. Jealousy
B. Weakness of character
C. Close relative in a foreign land
D. All of them
Answer: D
A security unit maintained and operated by any government entity.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security agency
Answer: C
Consist of the investigation of the background of a person particularly all the circumstances of his personal life
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
Answer: C
Any person, association, partnership, firm or private corporation, who contracts recruits, trains, furnishes, or posts any security guards to do its functions.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security agency
Answer: D
Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as his shift is concerned.
A. Officer in charge
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty
D. Assistant detachment commander
Answer: B
Before a security guard can practice his profession, he shall possess a valid security license, What is this license?
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate
C. Drivers license
D. Security guard license
Answer: D
How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by the security agency is allowed by law?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D
Firearms of security agency should be covered with a firearms license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive Division under the civil security group renewable every
A. 4 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year
Answer: D
The aspect of security which involves the application of security measures For the protection and safeguarding of classified information
A. Top secret
B. Information security
C. Personnel security
D. Documents security
Answer: D
Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification categories
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
Answer: B
Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified matter.
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
Answer: D
This means loss of security which results from an unauthorized person obtaining knowledge of classified matter.
A. Vulnerability
B. Criticality
C. probability
D. Compromise
Answer: D
These are information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation, politically, economically, or from a security aspect, this category is reserved for the nation's closest secret and is to be used with great reserve.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters
Answer: D
This information and material, the authorized disclosure of which would endanger national security, cause serious injury to the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental activity, or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters
Answer: B
These information and material, the unauthorized disclosure of which while not endangering the national security would be prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any government activity would cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or would be of the advantage to a foreign nation.
A. Restricted matters
B. Secret matters
C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters
Answer: C
It is information that in some special way relates to the status or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor asserts ownership.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: D
It may be a formula for a chemical compound, a process of manufacturing, treating, or preserving materials, a pattern for a machine or device, or a list of customers.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
Answer: B
It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures that prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized persons from gaining information through communication.
A. Transmission security
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication Security
D. All of the above
Answer: C
That component of communication security results from the provisions of technically sound cryptosystems and their proper use.
A. Transmission security
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication Security
D. All of the above
Answer: B
A system that uses words as the smallest element.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: B
A system that manipulates 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
Answer: D
It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: B
It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
Answer: D
Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business, government, or industrial environment for which the risk manager has responsibility.
A. Risk self-assumption
B. Risk spreading
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk avoidance
Answer: C
It is an act of spying.
A. Saboteur
B. Espionage
C. pilferer
D. Sabotage
Answer: B
It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards that security has to deal with.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
D. None of the above
Answer: C
One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes always any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
D. None of the above
Answer: B
What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security agency law passed?
A. June 13, 1999
B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
D. June 31, 1969
Answer: B
A natural hazard or act of god.
A. Calamity
B. Phenomenon
C. Disaster
D. Force majeure
Answer: D
A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and are usually escorted.
A. Exclusive area
B. Limited area
C. Restricted area
D. Protected area
Answer: B
A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase protection from intruders.
A. Guardhouse
B. Clear zone
C. Tower guard
D. Top guard
Answer: D
A conference similar to an entrance conference, is only done after the completion of the security survey.
A. Entrance conference
B. Briefing
C. Debriefing
D. Exit conference
Answer: D
It is the loss that would be sustained if a given target or combination of targets were totally removed destroyed or both.
A. Risk Reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: D
Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to sustain through theft and robbery.
A. Risk Reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
Answer: B
A term used in England for lock pickers, safe crackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or areas.
A. Superman
B. Peterpan
C. Batman
D. Peterman
Answer: D
The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession until his authorization terminates.
A. Pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Multi-pass system
Answer: C
Company-owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police station so that in case of need, direct call is possible.
A. Auxiliary alarm
B. Proprietary system
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station station system
Answer: A
The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm system near the object to be protected.
A. Auxiliary alarm
B. Proprietary system
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station system
Answer: C
The required age for the grant of a waiver of age requirement for initial appointment in the PNP is
A. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age
B. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age
C. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age
D. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age
Answer: B
Anybody who will enter the PNP service without a baccalaureate degree shall be given a maximum period of
A. 3 years to comply with the education qualification
B. 4 years to comply with the education qualification
C. 5 years to comply with the education qualification
D. 6 years to comply with the education qualification
Answer: B
Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous service shall be retired or separated if the said period of non-promotion gained within:
A. 20 yrs
B. 10 yrs
C. 18 months
D. none of these
Answer: B
The power to direct or oversee the day-to-day functions of police investigation of crime, crime prevention activities, and traffic control by the rules and regulations promulgated by the Commission is
A. Employment
B. Planning
C. Operational Supervision
D. Deployment
Answer: C
Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically deputized as representatives of the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DND
C. PLEB
D. None of the above
Answer: A
As a police officer, he/she should live a decent and virtuous life to serve as an example to others. This statement is part of the:
A. PNP Code of Covenant
B. Policeman’s Code
C. Police Officer’s Creed
D. All of the above
Answer: C
A Private Security Agency shall not employ more than How many private security professionals?
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 4,000
Answer: B
A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the following grounds:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of violation
D. if the person is in imminent danger
Answer: D
In arresting the traffic violator or when it involves arrest due to a traffic violation, the following procedures are followed, except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
Answer: D
A single uninterrupted line of authority represented by box lines of the organizational chart should run in order by rank from top command to the level of the organization.
A. organizational control
B. scalar chain
C. administrative control
D. span of control
Answer: B
The amount and nature of the demands of the police service
A. Clientele
B. Purpose
C. Time
D. Process
Answer: C
The PNP has a program that ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime-prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
B. roving patrol program
C. patrol and visibility program
D. police patrol program
Answer: C
All regional appointments of commissioned PNP officers commence with the rank of:
A. Police Master Sergeant
B. Police Lieutenant
C. Police Staff Sergeant
D. Police Captain
Answer: B
In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend?
A. Horse patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
Answer: C
It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of all available information that concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to policy planning.
A. Investigation
B. Information
C. Data
D. intelligence
Answer: D
These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload and the availability of resources.
A. administrative plan
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan
D. tactical plan
Answer: B
It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire, and jail personnel.
A. Philippine Military Academy
B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College
Answer: D
A SOCO crew which is assigned to a team usually consists of
A. a driver, specialist, and intelligence agent
B. a driver, evidence custodian, and traffic man
C. a driver, traffic man, and a recorder
D. a driver, team leader, and technicians
Answer: D
An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It must have
A. the building itself
B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
D. window barriers
Answer: B
Highest-ranked enlisted personnel of the PNP.
A. Police Staff Sergeant
B. Police Corporal
C. Police Chief Master Sergeant
D. Police Executive Master Sergeant
Answer: D
All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP)
Answer: D
It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose.
A. Inspection
B. Surveillance
C. Survey
D. Casing
Answer: C
In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the
A. two-party system
B. evaluation system
C. promotional system
D. spoils system
Answer: C
The compulsory retirement for PNP non-uniformed personnel shall be upon the attainment of
A. 55 years of age
B. 56 years of age
C. 60 years of age
D. 65 years of age
Answer: D
It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device that is capable of restricting, determining, or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard
Answer: C
What form of intelligence is involved when information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom the information or documents may be used, or if the information is clandestinely acquired?
A. covert
B. overt
C. active
D. underground
Answer: A
The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director from a list of _______ eligible recommended by the Regional Director, preferably from the same province, city, or municipality.
A. three (3)
B. five (5)
C. four (4)
D. Two (2)
Answer: A
Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately by a police-to-population ratio of:
A. one (1) policeman for every 700 inhabitants.
B. one (1) policeman for every 1,500 inhabitants.
C. one (1) policeman for every 500 inhabitants.
D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000) inhabitants.
Answer: C
In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a _______ where telephones or any means of communication shall ensure open lines of communication.
A. command post
B. operations center
C. field room
D. None of these
Answer: A
A claim for permanent total disability or death benefits of a PNP member shall be filed with the Office of the
A. Any of the regional offices of the NAPOLCOM.
B. Chief PNP
C. PNP Regional Director
D. PNP Legal Office
Answer: A
The cheapest form of police patrol.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Motorcycle Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
Answer: B
The budget is a _______ in terms of expenditure requirements.
A. tactical plan
B. financial plan
C. work plan
D. control plan
Answer: B
Who among the following disciplinary authorities may impose demotion in rank as a punishment?
A. Chief of Police
B. PLEB
C. Mayor
D. Director of City Police Office
Answer: B
It is a police function that serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function given its importance.
A. vice control
B. criminal investigation
C. traffic management
D. patrol
Answer: D
It is the weakest link in the security chain.
A. Managers
B. Barriers
C. Personnel
D. inspections
Answer: C
Who among the following has summary disciplinary powers over errant police members?
A. District Director
B. Provincial Director
C. Chief of Police
D. Chief, PNP
Answer: D
Which of the following is considered the most important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. adequacy of resources of the police station
C. rank of the patrol commander
D. salary rates of police personnel
Answer: B
The investigation and hearing before the administrative disciplinary authorities and the IAS shall
be
A. summary in nature
B. dilatory in nature
C. exhaustive in nature
D. lengthy in nature
Answer: D
The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar
B. Alexander the Great
C. Genghis Khan
D. Frederick the Great
Answer: D
Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer can give information to the police?
A. wants to be known to the policeman
B. monetary reward
C. as a good citizen
D. revenge
Answer: B
To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisors
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
Answer: C
It includes everything which is done contrary to justice, honesty, modesty, or good morals;
A. Moral Turpitude
B. Fraud
C. Morality
D. Unlawful
Answer: A
The period required by law to perform a specific act.
A. Reglementary Period
B. Mandatory Period
C. Compulsory period
D. None of these
Answer: A
You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats that are not covered by foot patrol.
Answer: B
The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
A. rabbit
B. surveillant
C. traffic enforcement
D. patrol
Answer: A
A PNP member or officer may be summarily dismissed from the service when absent without official leave for a continuous period of how many calendar days?
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 180 days
Answer: B
The National Appellate Board shall be composed of how many regular commissioners?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C
Decisions of the National Appellate Board and the Regional Appellate Board may be appealed to the
A. NAPOLCOM en Banc
B. Secretary of DILG
C. Chief PNP
D. Executive Secretary
Answer: B
It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians and attain orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit
B. Traffic Operations Center
C. Traffic Management Unit
D. Aviation Security Command
Answer: C
A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses.
A. observation
B. casing
C. research
D. interrogation
Answer: A
In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT
A. never meet the subject face-to-face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop the subject
Answer: C
Pedro is a thief who is looking at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria. The thief’s desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition
B. feeling
C. intention
D. opportunity
Answer: A
Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the rank of:
A. Lieutenant Colonel
B. Lieutenant
C. Master Sergeant
D. Captain
Answer: C
PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
Answer: C
One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons within the vicinity. In the police work, this is called:
A. data gathering
B. field inquiry
C. interrogation
D. interview
Answer: B
Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell
B. hearing
C. eating
D. drinking
Answer: A
Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic information because law enforcement officials must know the exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics
B. Human Cargo Trafficking
C. Narcotics Trafficking
D. Economic resources
Answer: C
Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle
B. helicopter
C. patrol car
D. bicycle
Answer: B
Police are considered servants of the community.
A. Continental Theory
B. Home Rule Theory
C. Confederate Theory
D. Anglo-Saxon Theory
Answer: B
Policemen are considered servants of a higher authority.
A. Continental Theory
B. Home Rule
C. Confederate Theory
D. Anglo-Saxon Theory
Answer: A
It is the right to direct, command, and control the behavior of the employees by the senior officer by rank and position.
A. Coordination
B. Doctrine
C. Authority
D. Consultation
Answer: C
It defines an unbroken chain or scale of units from top to bottom describing explicitly the flow of authority.
A. Unity of Command
B. Principle of Unity of Objective
C. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
D. Scalar Principe
Answer: D
This relates to the number of subordinates a superior can effectively supervise.
A. Delegation of Authority
B. Unity Of Command
C. Span of Control
D. Scalar Principle
Answer: C
It is the hierarchy through which the primary functions of the organization are performed.
A. Delegation of Authority
B. Unity of Command
C. Span of Control
D. Chain of Command
Answer: D
It defines a hierarchical system in which a subordinate is accountable to one and only one immediate superior.
A. Delegation of Authority
B. Unity of Command
C. Span of Control
D. Chain of Command
Answer: B
A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
Answer: C
This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward, or commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial guards, PNP, or any law enforcement agency of the government.
A. Secret Agent
B. “Tiktik”
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
Answer: C
The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty, and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
Answer: A
Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat turning right after reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you complete the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have you applied?
A. clockwise
B. straightway
C. counter clockwise
D. free-wheeling
Answer: A
Which theory of patrol states that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
Answer: A
Without Air Force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields, or wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol
B. horse patrol
C. marine patrol
D. helicopter patrol
Answer: B
Which of the following refers to the long-range planning?
A. Intermediate
B. Strategic
C. Medium
D. short
Answer: B
The operational plan which is designed to meet everyday or year-round needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
Answer: C
Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?
A. horse
B. foot
C. canine
D. police
Answer: B
The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
Answer: C
The Philippines may refuse an extradition request based on which of the following grounds?
A. Crime is money laundering
B. Crime is political in nature
C. Crime is terrorism
D. Crime is drug trafficking
Answer: B
It is a formal process where one jurisdiction surrenders an individual to another jurisdiction where that person is accused or convicted of a crime.
A. Deportation
B. Extradition
C. Expulsion
D. Repatriation
Answer: B
The Extradition process generally begins when a foreign country requests the extradition of an individual located in the Philippines. This request is sent to what department of government?
A. DOJ
B. DFA
C: RTC
D. NBI
Answer: DFA
The request for extradition is sent to the Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA), which then forwards it to what department of government for evaluation?
A. DOJ
B. Court of Appeals
C: Regional Trial Court
D. Supreme Court
Answer: A
If the DOJ finds the extradition request to be in order, it will file a petition for extradition with what department of government?
A. Municipal Trial Court
B. Court of Appeals
C: Regional Trial Court
D. Supreme Court
Answer: C
The Philippines receives the most extradition requests from what country?
A. US
B. Australia
C. China
D. India
Answer: A
Is Bail as a matter of right applicable in Extradition cases?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends
D. Yes with conditions
Answer: B
The Philippines has an extradition treaty with the following countries except:
A. Micronesia
B. Switzerland
C. Russia
D. Germany
Answer: D
All but one are the primary line operation in police organization
A. patrol
B. records
C. investigation
D. traffic
Answer: C
A police strategy that aims to directly involve community members in the maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS)
Answer: D
No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group objectives. Also, no one should exercise all the authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility
C. unity of command
D. delegation of authority
Answer: D
Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of his original appointment in the police, fire, jail, or other allied services?
A. 2 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent
Answer: C
This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
A. off duty
B. off limits
C. on call
D. on duty
Answer: D
What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through established channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
Answer: A
It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of the PNP.
A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
C. PLEB
D. IAS
Answer: C
Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487
B. R.A. 8551
C. R.A. 1174
D. R.A. 6975
Answer: D
Who is the most important officer in the police organization?
A. investigator
B. patrol officer
C. traffic officer
D. The Chief of Police
Answer: B
The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules and regulations.
A. dismissal
B. restriction
C. suspension
D. reprimand
Answer: C
The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service.
A. police credibility
B. police eligibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
Answer: B
In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
Answer: A
The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development, and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP, and PNP.
A. PNPA
B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC
Answer: D
Under the law, the city jail warden should have a rank of _______.
A. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
Answer: B
The required rank for the Chief of BJMP.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
It exercises supervision and control over the provincial jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Provincial Government
Answer: D
The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C
It exercises supervision and control over all city and municipal jails.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Prisons
C. Department of Justice
D. Local Government
Answer: A
The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP.
A. 25%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
Answer: C
Any uniformed personnel of the BFP and the BJMP who have not been promoted for a continuous period of how many years before separated or retired from the service, except for those who are occupying a third-level position.
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 3 years
Answer: B
Any uniformed personnel of the BFP and the BJMP who has not been promoted for a continuous period of how many years before separated or retired from the service, except for those who are occupying a third-level position.
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 3 years
Answer: B
Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity?
A. CIDG
B. DSWD
C. Women’s Desk
D. Homicide Division
Answer: C
They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
Answer: C
They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer, and reassignment of PNP members outside of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
Answer: D
The head of a local peace and order council is the _______.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor
Answer: C
The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
Answer: A
The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP.
A. employment
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation
Answer: B
One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombudsman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
Answer: C
The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is _______.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: B
Under the law, Which has primary responsibility on matters involving the suppression of insurgency.
A. AFP
B. PNP
C. Both AFP and PNP
D. Philippine Marines
Answer: A
There are four regular commissioners of the NAPOLCOM. How many of them should come from the private sector?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be processed at what particular government agency.
A. PNP SAGSD
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DND
D. SEC
Answer: D
Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of a security agency.
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old
Answer: A
He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief PNP
B. DILG Usec
C. NAPOLCOM chairman
D. DILG Secretary
Answer: A
Refers to a natural or man-made structure that is capable of delaying illegal access to the facility.
A. Wall
B. Fence
C. Barriers
D. Beach fronts
Answer: C
It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees make their security conscious.
A. Security Promotion
B. Security Education
C. Security Investigation
D. Security Seminar
Answer: B
Industrial management must establish the first line of physical defense, it refers to
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself
C. Door, Locks, Window barriers
D. Entry points where security guards are located
Answer: A
Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object matter to be protected. As criminologists, this is simply a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Opportunity to the object of protection
C. Access to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
Answer: C
The weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
Answer: D
Perimeter barriers, protective lighting, and ______ system are known in industrial security as physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
Answer: A
This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders of a certain area, this is known as
A. Cellar Guard
B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
D. Top Tower
Answer: C
The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
Answer: B
Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of electronic hardware, human guards, and even animals. In England, an owner protects his compound using this and they are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain. This man is using
A. Doberman
B. Tame Tigers
C. Geese
D. Duck
Answer: C
The government agency that issues licenses for private and government security guards is
A. PNP SOSIA
B. Mayors office
C. PNP FEO
D. PNP SAGSD
Answer: D
If access is limited only to authorized personnel, this particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
Answer: B
The first measure undertaken before a comprehensive security program for an industrial plan could be developed.
A. Security Education
B. Security check
C. Security survey
D. Security Inspection
Answer: C
The security of a plant or industrial firm is also known by other terms except
A. Robbery evaluation
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk Assessment
D. Security Audit
Answer: B
Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to the blue army.
A. Government security guards
B. Company guards
C. Agency guards
D. Bodyguards
Answer: D
Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm or hire contractual agency guards has its individual merits and disadvantages. To determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require management must consult
A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer
D. A security agency owner
Answer: A
As a security officer, you can not prevent nor protect natural hazards like storms, earthquakes, floods, and the like. In order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards for the firm
Answer: D
A practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called
A. Sham drill
B. Fire drill
C. Dry run
D. Evacuation plan
Answer: C
It is the office primarily responsible for the issuance of licenses to and regulation of PSPs, PSTAs, CGFs, and GSFs.
A. SAGSD
B. SOSIA
C. Civil Security Unit
D. SEC
Answer: B